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2024年6月英语四级真题操练带谜底
每日所支出的价格都比前一日高，由于你的性命又消短了一天，以是每日都要更主动。明天太可贵，不应当为酸苦的忧愁和辛涩的懊悔所销蚀，抬起下巴，捉住明天，它不再返来。以下是小编为大师搜刮清算的2024年6月英语四级真题操练带谜底，但愿能给大师带来赞助!更多出色内容请及时存眷咱们应届毕业生测验网!
6月英语四级真题操练带谜底 1
Directions:For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a letter to express your thanks to your parents or any family members upon making memorable achievement. You should write at least 120 words but no more than 180 words.
Section A
Directions: In this section, you will hear three news reports. At the end of each news report, you will hear two or three questions. Both the news report and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the news report you have just heard.
1. A)The International Labor Organization’s key objective.
B)The basic social protection for the most vulnerable.
C)Rising unemployment worldwide.
D)Global economic recovery.
2. A)Many countries have not taken measures to create enough jobs.
B)Few countries know how to address the current economic crisis.
C)Few countries have realized the seriousness of the current crisis.
D)Many countries need support to improve their people’s livelihood.
Questions 3 and 4 are based on the news report you have just heard.
3. A)Serve standardized food nationwide.
B)Put calorie information on the menu.
C)Increase protein content in the food.
D)Offer convenient food to customers.
4. A)They will be fined.
B)They will be closed.
C)They will get a warning.
D)They will lose customers.
Questions 5 to 7 are based on the news report you have just heard.
5. A)Inability to implement their business plans.
B)Inability to keep turning out novel products.
C)Lack of a successful business model of their own.
D)Failure to integrate innovation into their business.
6. A)It is the secret to business success.
B)It is the creation of something new.
C)It is a magic tool to bring big rewards.
D)It is an essential part of business culture.
7. A)Its hardworking employees.
B)Its flexible promotion strategy.
C)Its innovation culture.
D)Its willingness to make investments.
Section B
Directions: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversations you will hear four questions. Both the conversations and the question-s will be spoken only once. After you hear a question. You must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A),B),C)and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.
Questions 8 to 11 are based on the conversation you have just heard.
8. A)He’s got addicted to technology.
B)He is not very good at socializing.
C)He is crazy about text-messaging.
D)He does not talk long on the phone.
9. A)Talk big.
B)Talk at length.
C)Gossip a lot.
D)Forget herself.
10. A)He thought it was cool.
B)He needed the practice.
C)He wanted to stay connected with them.
D)He had an urgent message to send.
11. A)It poses a challenge to seniors.
B)It saves both time and money.
C)It is childish and unprofessional.
D)It is cool and convenient.
Questions 12 to 15 are based on the conversation you have just heard.
12. A)He wants to change his job assignment.
B)He is unhappy with his department manager.
C)He thinks he deserves extra pay for overtime.
D)He is often singled out for criticism by his boss.
13. A)His workload was much too heavy.
B)His immediate boss did not trust him.
C)His colleagues often refused to cooperate.
D)His salary was too low for his responsibility.
14. A)He never knows how to refuse.
B)He is always ready to help others.
C)His boss has a lot of trust in him.
D)His boss has no sense of fairness.
15. A)Put all his complaints in writing.
B)Wait and see what happens next.
C)Learn to say no when necessary.
D)Talk to his boss in person first.
Section C
Directions: In this section, you will hear three passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear three or four questions. Both the passage and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A),B),C)and D).Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.
Questions 16 to 18 are based on the passage you have just heard.
16. A)The importance of sleep to a healthy life.
B) Reasons for Americans’ decline in sleep.
C)Some tips to improve the quality of sleep.
D)Diseases associated with lack of sleep.
17. A)They are more health-conscious.
B)They are changing their living habits.
C)They get less and less sleep.
D) They know the dangers of lack of sleep.
18. A)Their weight will go down.
B)Their mind function will deteriorate.
C)Their work efficiency will decrease.
D)Their blood pressure will rise.
Questions 19 to 21 are based on the passage you have just heard.
19. A)How much you can afford to pay.
B)What course you are going to choose.
C)Which university you are going to apply to.
D)When you are going to submit your application.
20. A)The list of courses studied.
B)The full record of scores.
C)The references from teachers.
D)The personal statement.
21. A)Specify what they would like to do after graduation.
B)Describe in detail how much they would enjoy studying.
C)Indicate they have reflected and thought about the subject.
D)Emphasize that they admire the professors in the university.
Questions 22 to 25 are based on the passage you have just heard.
22. A)It was equipped with rubber tyres.
B)It was built in the late 19th century.
C)It was purchased by the Royal family.
D)It was designed by an English engineer.
23. A)They consumed lots of petrol.
B)They took two passengers only.
C)They were difficult to drive.
D)They often broke down.
24. A)They were produced on the assembly line.
B)They were built with less costly materials.
C)They were modeled after British cars.
D)They were made for ordinary use.
25. A)It made news all over the world.
B)It was built for the Royal family.
C)It marked a new era in motor travel.
D)It attracted large numbers of motorists.
Section A
Directions:In this section, there is a passage with ten blanks. You are required to select one word for each blank from a list of choices given in a word bank following the passage. Read the passage through carefully before making your choices. Each choice in the bank is identified by a letter. Please mark the corresponding letter for each item on Answer Sheet 2 with a single line through the centre. You may not use any of the words in the bank more than once.
Questions 26 to 35 are based on the passage you have just heard.
Physical activity does the body good, and there’s growing evidence that it helps the brain too. Researchers in the Netherlands report that children who get more exercise, whether at school or on their own, 26 to have higher GPAs and better scores on standardized tests. In a 27 of 14 studies that looked at physical activity and academic 28 , investigators found that the more children moved, the better their grades were in school, 29 in the basic subjects of math, English and reading.
The data will certainly fuel the ongoing debate over whether physical education classes should be cut as schools struggle to 30 on smaller budgets. The arguments against physical education have included concerns that gym time may be taking away from study time. With standardized test scores in the U.S. 31 in recent years, some administrators believe students need to spend more time in the classroom instead of on the playground. But as these findings show, exercise and academics may not be 32 exclusive. Physical activity can improve blood 33 to the brain, fueling memory, attention and creativity, which are 34 to learning. And exercise releases hormones that can improve 35 and relieve stress, which can also help learning. So while it may seem as if kids are just exercising their bodies when they’re running around, they may actually be exercising their brains as well.
A)attendance
B)consequently
C)current
D)depressing
E)dropping
F)essential
G)feasible
H)flow
I)mood
J)mutually
K)particularly
L)performance
M)review
N)survive
O)tend
Section B
Directions: In this section, you are going to read a passage with ten statements attached to it. Each statement contains information given in one of the paragraphs. Identify the paragraph from which the information is derived. You may choose a paragraph more than once. Each paragraph is marked with a letter. Answer the questions by marking the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 2.
Finding the Right Home-and Contentment, Too
[A] When your elderly relative needs to enter some sort of long-term care facility-a moment few parents or children approach without fear-what you would like is to have everything made clear.
[B] Does assisted living really mark a great improvement over a nursing home, or has the industry simply hired better interior designers? Are nursing homes as bad as people fear, or is that an out-moded stereotype (牢固观点)? Can doing one’s homework really steer families to the best places? It is genuinely hard to know.
[C] I am about to make things more complicated by suggesting that what kind of facility an older person lives in may matter less than we have assumed. And that the characteristics adult children look for when they begin the search are not necessarily the things that make a difference to the people who are going to move in. I am not talking about the quality of care, let me hastily add. Nobody flourishes in a gloomy environment with irresponsible staff and a poor safety record. But an accumulating body of research indicates that some distinctions between one type of elder care and another have little real bearing on how well residents do.
[D]The most recent of these studies, published in The journal of Applied Gerontology, surveyed 150 Connecticut residents of assisted living, nursing homes and smaller residential care homes (known in some states as board and care homes or adult care homes). Researchers from the University of Connecticut Health Center asked the residents a large number of questions about their quality of life, emotional well-being and social interaction, as well as about the quality of the facilities.
[E]“We thought we would see differences based on the housing types,” said the lead author of the study, Julie Robison, an associate professor of medicine at the university. A reasonable assumption-don’t families struggle to avoid nursing homes and suffer real guilt if they can’t?
[F] In the initial results, assisted living residents did paint the most positive picture. They were less likely to report symptoms of depression than those in the other facilities, for instance, and less likely to be bored or lonely. They scored higher on social interaction.
[G] But when the researchers plugged in a number of other variables, such differences disappeared. It is not the housing type, they found, that creates differences in residents’ responses. “It is the characteristics of the specific environment they are in, combined with their own personal characteristics-how healthy they feel they are, their age and marital status,” Dr. Robison explained. Whether residents felt involved in the decision to move and how long they had lived there also proved significant.
[H] An elderly person who describes herself as in poor health, therefore, might be no less depressed in assisted living (even if her children preferred it) than in a nursing home. A person who bad input into where he would move and has had time to adapt to it might do as well in a nursing home as in a small residential care home, other factors being equal. It is an interaction between the person and the place, not the sort of place in itself, that leads to better or worse experiences. “You can’t just say, ‘Let’s put this person in a residential care home instead of a nursing home-she will be much better off,” Dr. Robison said. What matters, she added, “is a combination of what people bring in with them, and what they find there.”
[I] Such findings, which run counter to common sense, have surfaced before. In a multi-state study of assisted living, for instance, University of North Carolina researchers found that a host of variables-the facility’s type, size or age; whether a chain owned it; how attractive the neighborhood was-had no significant relationship to how the residents fared in terms of illness, mental decline, hospitalizations or mortality. What mattered most was the residents’ physical health and mental status. What people were like when they came in had greater consequence than what happened one they were there.
[J] As I was considering all this, a press release from a respected research firm crossed my desk, announcing that the five-star rating system that Medicare developed in 2008 to help families compare nursing home quality also has little relationship to how satisfied its residents or their family members are. As a matter of fact, consumers expressed higher satisfaction with the one-star facilities, the lowest rated, than with the five-star ones. (More on this study and the star ratings will appear in a subsequent post.)
[K] Before we collectively tear our hair out-how are we supposed to find our way in a landscape this confusing?-here is a thought from Dr. Philip Sloane, a geriatrician(老年病学专家)at the University of North Carolina:“In a way, that could be liberating for families.”
[L] Of course, sons and daughters want to visit the facilities, talk to the administrators and residents and other families, and do everything possible to fulfill their duties. But perhaps they don’t have to turn themselves into private investigators or Congressional subcommittees. “Families can look a bit more for where the residents are going to be happy,” Dr. Sloane said. And involving the future resident in the process can be very important.
[M] We all have our own ideas about what would bring our parents happiness. They have their ideas, too. A friend recently took her mother to visit an expensive assisted living/nursing home near my town. I have seen this place-it is elegant, inside and out. But nobody greeted the daughter and mother when they arrived, though the visit had been planned; nobody introduced them to the other residents. When they had lunch in the dining room, they sat alone at a table.
[N] The daughter feared her mother would be ignored there, and so she decided to move her into a more welcoming facility. Based on what is emerging from some of this research, that might have been as rational a way as any to reach a decision.
36. Many people feel guilty when they cannot find a place other than a nursing home for their parents.
37.Though it helps for children to investigate care facilities, involving their parents in the decision-making process may prove very important.
38.It is really difficult to tell if assisted living is better than a nursing home.
39.How a resident feels depends on an interaction between themselves and the care facility they live in.
40.The author thinks her friend made a rational decision in choosing a more hospitable place over an apparently elegant assisted living home.
41.The system Medicare developed to rate nursing home quality is of little help to finding a satisfactory place.
42.At first the researchers of the most recent study found residents in assisted living facilities gave higher scores on social interaction.
43.What kind of care facility old people live in may be less important than we think.
44.The findings of the latest research were similar to an earlier multi-state study of assisted living.
45.A resident’s satisfaction with a care facility has much to do with whether they had participated in the decision to move in and how long they had stayed there.
Section C
Directions: There are 2 passages in this section. Each passage is followed by some questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A),B),C) and D). You should decide on the best choice and mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 2 with a single line through the centre.
Passage one
Questions 46 to 50 are based on the following passage.
As Artificial Intelligence(AI) becomes increasingly sophisticated, there are growing concerns that robots could become a threat. This danger can be avoided, according to computer science professor Stuart Russell, if we figure out how to turn human values into a programmable code.
Russell argues that as robots take on more complicated tasks, it’s necessary to translate our morals into AI language.
For example, if a robot does chores around the house, you wouldn’t want it to put the pet cat in the oven to make dinner for the hungry children. “You would want that robot preloaded with a good set of values,” said Russell.
Some robots are already programmed with basic human values. For example, mobile robots have been programmed to keep a comfortable distance from humans. Obviously there are cultural differences, but if you were talking to another person and they came up close in your personal space, you wouldn’t think that’s the kind of thing a properly brought-up person would do.
It will be possible to create more sophisticated moral machines, if only we can find a way to set out human values as clear rules.
Robots could also learn values from drawing patterns from large sets of data on human behavior. They are dangerous only if programmers are careless.
The biggest concern with robots going against human values is that human beings fail to so sufficient testing and they’ve produced a system that will break some kind of taboo(忌讳).
One simple check would be to program a robot to check the correct course of action with a human when presented with an unusual situation.
If the robot is unsure whether an animal is suitable for the microwave, it has the opportunity to stop, send out beeps(嘟嘟声), and ask for directions from a human. If we humans aren’t quite sure about a decision,we go and ask somebody else.
The most difficult step in programming values will be deciding exactly what we believe in moral, and how to create a set of ethical rules. But if we come up with an answer, robots could be good for humanity.
46.What does the author say about the threat of robots?
A)It may constitute a challenge to computer progranmers.
B)It accompanies all machinery involving high technology.
C)It can be avoided if human values are translated into their language.
D)It has become an inevitable peril as technology gets more sophisticated.
47.What would we think of a person who invades our personal space according to the author?
A)They are aggressive.
B)They are outgoing.
C)They are ignorant.
D)They are ill-bred.
48.How do robots learn human values?
A)By interacting with humans in everyday life situations.
B)By following the daily routines of civilized human beings.
C)By picking up patterns from massive data on human behavior.
D)By imitating the behavior of property brought-up human beings.
49.What will a well-programmed robot do when facing an unusual situation?
A)keep a distance from possible dangers.
B)Stop to seek advice from a human being.
C)Trigger its built-in alarm system at once.
D)Do sufficient testing before taking action.
50.What is most difficult to do when we turn human values into a programmable code?
A)Determine what is moral and ethical.
B)Design some large-scale experiments.
C)Set rules for man-machine interaction.
D)Develop a more sophisticated program.
Passage Two
Questions 51 to 55 are based on the following passage.
Why do some people live to be older than others? You know the standard explanations: keeping a moderate diet, engaging in regular exercise, etc. But what effect does your personality have on your longevity(长命)?Do some kinds of personalities lead to longer lives? A new study in the Journal of the American Geriatrics Society looked at this question by examining the personality characteristics of 246 children of people who had lived to be at least 100.
The study shows that those living the longest are more outgoing, more active and less neurotic (神经质的) than other people. Long-living women are also more likely to be sympathetic and cooperative than women with a normal life span. These findings are in agreement with what you would expect from the evolutionary theory: those who like to make friends and help others can gather enough resources to make it through tough times.
Interestingly, however, other characteristics that you might consider advantageous had no impact on whether study participants were likely to live longer. Those who were more self-disciplined, for instance, were no more likely to live to be very old. Also, being open to new ideas had no relationship to long life, which might explain all those bad-tempered old people who are fixed in their ways.
Whether you can successfully change your personality as an adult is the subject of a longstanding psychological debate. But the new paper suggests that if you want long life, you should strive to be as outgoing as possible.
Unfortunately, another recent study shows that your mother’s personality may also help determine your longevity. That study looked at nearly 28,000 Norwegian mothers and found that those moms who were more anxious, depressed and angry were more likely to feed their kids unhealthy diets. Patterns of childhood eating can be hard to break when we’re adults, which may mean that kids of depressed moms end up dying younger.
Personality isn’t destiny(运气), and everyone knows that individuals can learn to change. But both studies show that long life isn’t just a matter of your physical health but of your mental health.
51. The aim of the study in the Journal of the American Geriatrics Society is____.
A)to see whether people’s personality affects their life span
B)to find out if one’s lifestyle has any effect on their health
C)to investigate the role of exercise in living a long life
D)to examine all the factors contributing to longevity
52. What does the author imply about outgoing and sympathetic people?
A)They have a good understanding of evolution.
B)They are better at negotiating an agreement.
C)They generally appear more resourceful.
D)They are more likely to get over hardship.
53. What finding of the study might prove somewhat out of our expectation?
A)Easy-going people can also live a relatively long life.
B)Personality characteristics that prove advantageous actually vary with times.
C)Such personality characteristics as self-discipline have no effect on longevity.
D)Readiness to accept new ideas helps one enjoy longevity.
54. What does the recent study of Norwegian mothers show?
A)Children’s personality characteristics are invariably determined by their mothers.
B)People with unhealthy eating habits are likely to die sooner.
C)Mothers’ influence on children may last longer than fathers’.
D)Mothers’ negative personality characteristics may affect their children’s life spans.
55.What can we learn from the findings of the two new studies?
A)Anxiety and depression more often than not cut short one’s life span.
B)Longevity results from a combination of mental and physical health.
C)Personality plays a decisive role in how healthy one is.
D)Health is in large part related to one’s lifestyle.
Directions:For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to translate a passage from Chinese into English. You should write your answer on the ANSWER SHEET 2.
工夫是中国技击的俗称.中国技击的发源能够或许或许追溯到侵占的须要、打猎勾当和现代中国的.军事操练.它是中国传统体育勾当的一种,年青人老年人都练.它已逐步演化成了中国文明的怪异元素.作为中国的国宝,工夫有上百种差别的气概,是天下上练的最多的技击情势.有些气概仿照了动物的举措,另有一些则遭到了中国哲学思惟、神话和传说的开导.
听力谜底
Section A
1. C) Rising unemployment worldwide.
2. C) Few countries have realized the seriousness of the current crisis.
3. B) Put calorie information on the menu.
4. A) They will be fined.
5. D) Failure to integrate innovation into their business.
6. B) It is the creation of something new.
7. C) Its innovation culture.
Section B
8. D)He does not talk long on the phone.
9.B) talk at length.
10.A) He thought it was cool.
11.C) It is childish and unprofessional.
12. A) He wants to change his job assignment.
13. A) His workload was much too heavy.
14. C) His boss has a lot of trust in him.
15. D) Talk to his boss in person first.
Section C
16.A) The importance of sleep to a healthy life
17 .C) They get less and less sleep
18 .D) Their blood pressure will rise
19. B) What course you are going to choose
20. D) The personal statement
21. C)Indicate they have reflected and thought about the subject
22 .B) It was built in the late 19th century.
23 .D) They often broke down.
24 .A) They were produced on the assembly line.
25 .C) It marked a new era in motor travel.
选词填空
26. 准确选项 O tend
27. 准确选项 M review
28. 准确选项 L performance
29. 准确选项 K particularly
30. 准确选项 N survive
31. 准确选项 E dropping
32. 准确选项 J mutually
33. 准确选项 H flow
34. 准确选项 F essential
35. 准确选项 I mood
段落婚配
36. 准确选项 E
37. 准确选项 L
38. 准确选项 B
39. 准确选项 H
40. 准确选项 N
41. 准确选项 J
42. 准确选项 F
43. 准确选项 C
44. 准确选项 I
45. 准确选项 G
细心浏览
Passage one
46. 准确选项C. It can be avoided if human values aretranslated into their language.
47. 准确选项 D. They are ill-bred.
48. 准确选项 C. By picking up patterns from massive dataon human behavior.
49. 准确选项 D. Do sufficient testing before takingaction.
50. 准确选项 A. Determine what is moral and ethical.
Passage Two
51. 准确选项A. to see whether people’s personality affects their life span
52. 准确选项 D. They are more likely to get overhardship.
53. 准确选项 C. Such personality characteristics asself-discipline have no effect on longevity.
54. 准确选项 D. Mothers’negative personality characteristics may affect their children’s life spans..
55. 准确选项 B. Longevity results form a combination ofmental and physical health.
6月英语四级真题操练带谜底 2
第一局部 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将谜底标在试卷上。灌音内容竣事后，你将有两分钟的时辰将试卷上的谜底转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听上面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项当选出最好选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时辰往返答有关小题和浏览下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
谜底是C。
1. What did the woman do yesterday evening?
A. She watched TV. B. She went shopping. C. She attended a show.
2. What is the man’s suggestion?
A. Taking a rest. B. Going for a coffee. C. Having a snack.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A weekend plan. B. A wedding invitation. C. A business deal.
4. Where is Barbara going tonight?
A. To a gym. B. To her grandma’s. C. To the doctor’s.
5. What is Alex doing?
A. He’s having breakfast. B. He’s feeding a cat. C. He’s reading a book.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听上面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项当选出最好选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将偶然候浏览各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时辰。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段资料，回覆第6、7题。
6. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a fitness center. B. In a sports shop. C. In a clinic.
7. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Buy high-quality sportswear.
B. Keep working out regularly.
C. Avoid over-exercising.
听第7段资料，回覆第8至10题。
8. Why does the man make the call?
A. To reserve a table. B. To ask about a party. C. To postpone a meeting.
9. What time should the man arrive on Friday evening?
A. At 5:30. B. At 6:30 C. At 8:00.
10. What is the man’s name?
A. Brown. B. Anderson. C. Howard.
听第8段资料，回覆第11至13题。
11. Why does Sarah come to talk to Jacob?
A. To make an appointment.
B. To seek his advice.
C. To explain a decision.
12. How many people are there in Sarah’s group?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
13. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Fellow workers. C. Teacher and student.
听第9段资料，回覆第14至16题。
14. How often does the band come to perform in the park?
A. Three times a year. B. Once a year. C. Every other year.
15. What kind of music will be played this evening?
A. Country music. B. Jazz C. Rock and roll.
16. What will Jannie do next?
A. Catch a bus. B. Listen to a lecture. C. Go to the library.
听第10段资料，回覆第17至20题。
17. Why did the speaker go to the hotel?
A. To deliver a speech. B. To arrange a conference. C. To interview Mr. Rochester.
18. What did Mr. Rochester do soon after he bought the hotel?
A. He talked with the staff members.
B. He had the old carpets replaced.
C. He ran a six-month training project.
19. What did Susan do when she met Mr. Rochester the second time?
A. She was a cleaner. B. She was a secretary. C. She was a receptionist.
20. What does the speaker think is key to Mr. Rochester’s success?
A. Managing time efficiently.
B. Valuing human relationships.
C. Possessing a good memory.
第二局部 浏览（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
浏览以下漫笔，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项当选出最好选项。
A
Choice of Walks for Beginner and Experienced Walkers
The Carlow Autumn Walking Festival is a great opportunity for the beginner, experienced or advanced walker to enjoy the challenges of Carlow’s mountain hikes or the peace of its woodland walks.
Walk 1 – The Natural World
With environmentalist anna Lamhna as the guide, this walk promises to be an informative tour. Walkers are sure to learn lots about the habitats and natural world of the Blackstairs.
Date and Time: Saturday, 1st October, at 09:00
Start Point: Scratoes Bridge
Walk Duration: 6 hours
Walk 2 – Introduction to Hillwalking
Emmanuel Chappard, an experienced guide, has a passion for making the great outdoors accessible to all. This mountain walk provides an insight into the skills required for hillwalking to ensure you get the most from future walking trips.
Date and Time: Sunday, 2nd October, at 09:00
Start Point: Deerpark Car Park
Walk Duration: 5 hours
Walk 3 – Moonlight Under the Stars
Walking at night-time is a great way to step out of your comfort zone. Breathtaking views of the lowlands of Carlow can be enjoyed in the presence of welcoming guides from local walking clubs. A torch (手电筒) along with suitable clothing is essential for walking in the dark. Those who are dressed inappropriately will be refused permission to participate.
Date and Time: Saturday, 1st October, at 18:30
Start Point: The Town Hall
Walk Duration: 3 hours
Walk 4 – Photographic Walk in Kilbrannish Forest
This informative walk led by Richard Smyth introduces you to the basic principles of photography in the wild. Bring along your camera and enjoy the wonderful views along this well-surfaced forest path.
Date and Time: Sunday, 2nd October, at 11:45
Start Point: Kilbrannish Forest Recreation Area
Walk Duration: 1.5 hours
21. Which walk takes the shortest time?
A. The Natural World. B. Introduction to Hillwalking.
C. Moonlight Under the Stars. D. Photographic Walk in Kilbrannish Forest.
22. What are participants in Walk 3 required to do?
A. Wear proper clothes. B. Join a walking club.
C. Get special permits. D. Bring a survival guide.
23. What do the four walks have in common?
A. They involve difficult climbing. B. They are for experienced walkers.
C. They share the same start point. D. They are scheduled for the weekend.
B
Do you ever get to the train station and realize you forgot to bring something to read? Yes, we all have our phones, but many of us still like to go old school and read something printed.
Well, there’s a kiosk (小亭) for that. In the San Francisco Bay Area, at least.
“You enter the fare gates (检票口) and you’ll see a kiosk that is lit up and it tells you can get a one-minute, a three-minute, or a five-minute story,” says Alicia Trost, the chief communications officer for the San Francisco Bay Area Rapid Transit — known as BART. “You choose which length you want and it gives you a receipt-like short story.”
It’s that simple. Riders have printed nearly 20,000 short stories and poems since the program was launched last March. Some are classic short stories, and some are new original works.
Trost also wants to introduce local writers to local riders. “We wanted to do something where we do a call to artists in the Bay Area to submit stories for a contest,” Trost says. “And as of right now, we’ve received about 120 submissions. The winning stories would go into our kiosk and then you would be a published artist.”
Ridership on transit (交通) systems across the country has been down the past half century, so could short stories save transit?
Trost thinks so.
“At the end of the day all transit agencies right now are doing everything they can to improve the rider experience. So I absolutely think we will get more riders just because of short stories,” she says.
And you’ll never be without something to read.
24. Why did BART start the kiosk program?
A. To promote the local culture. B. To discourage phone use.
C. To meet passengers’ needs. D. To reduce its running costs.
25. How are the stories categorized in the kiosk?
A. By popularity. B. By length.
C. By theme. D. By language.
26. What has Trost been doing recently?
A. Organizing a story contest. B. Doing a survey of customers.
C. Choosing a print publisher. D. Conducting interviews with artists.
27. What is Trost’s opinion about BART’s future?
A. It will close down. B. Its profits will decline.
C. It will expand nationwide. D. Its ridership will increase.
C
We all know fresh is best when it comes to food. However, most produce at the store went through weeks of travel and covered hundreds of miles before reaching the table. While farmer’s markets are a solid choice to reduce the journey, Babylon Micro-Farm (BMF) shortens it even more.
BMF is an indoor garden system. It can be set up for a family. Additionally, it could serve a larger audience such as a hospital, restaurant or school. The innovative design requires little effort to achieve a reliable weekly supply of fresh greens.
Specifically, it’s a farm that relies on new technology. By connecting through the Cloud, BMF is remotely monitored. Also, there is a convenient app that provides growing data in real time. Because the system is automated, it significantly reduces the amount of water needed to grow plants. Rather than watering rows of soil, the system provides just the right amount to each plant. After harvest, users simply replace the plants with a new pre-seeded pod (容器) to get the next growth cycle started.
Moreover, having a system in the same building where it’s eaten means zero emissions (排放) from transporting plants from soil to salad. In addition, there’s no need for pesticides and other chemicals that pollute traditional farms and the surrounding environment.
BMF employees live out sustainability in their everyday lives. About half of them walk or bike to work. Inside the office, they encourage recycling and waste reduction by limiting garbage cans and avoiding single-use plastic. “We are passionate about reducing waste, carbon and chemicals in our environment,” said a BMF employee.
28. What can be learned about BMF from paragraph 1?
A. It guarantees the variety of food. B. It requires day-to-day care.
C. It cuts the farm-to-table distance. D. It relies on farmer’s markets.
29. What information does the convenient app offer?
A. Real-time weather changes. B. Current condition of the plants.
C. Chemical pollutants in the soil. D. Availability of pre-seeded pods.
30. What can be concluded about BMF employees?
A. They have a great passion for sports.
B. They are devoted to community service.
C. They are fond of sharing daily experiences.
D. They have a strong environmental awareness.
31. What does the text mainly talk about?
A. BMF’s major strengths. B. BMF’s general management.
C. BMF’s global influence. D. BMF’s technical standards.
D
Given the astonishing potential of AI to transform our lives, we all need to take action to deal with our AI-powered future, and this is where AI by Design: A Plan for Living with Artificial Intelligence comes in. This absorbing new book by Catriona Campbell is a practical roadmap addressing the challenges posed by the forthcoming AI revolution (变更).
In the wrong hands, such a book could prove as complicated to process as the computer code (代码) that powers AI but, thankfully, Campbell has more than two decades’ professional experience translating the heady into the understandable. She writes from the practical angle of a business person rather than as an academic, making for a guide which is highly accessible and informative and which, by the close, will make you feel almost as smart as AI.
As we soon come to learn from AI by Design, AI is already super-smart and will become more capable, moving from the current generation of “narrow-AI” to Artificial General Intelligence. From there, Campbell says, will come Artificial Dominant Intelligence. This is why Campbell has set out to raise awareness of AI and its future now — several decades before these developments are expected to take place. She says it is essential that we keep control of artificial intelligence, or risk being sidelined and perhaps even worse.
Campbell’s point is to wake up those responsible for AI — the technology companies and world leaders — so they are on the same page as all the experts currently developing it. She explains we are at a “tipping point” in history and must act now to prevent an extinction-level event for humanity. We need to consider how we want our future with AI to pan out. Such structured thinking, followed by global regulation, will enable us to achieve greatness rather than our downfall.
AI will affect us all, and if you only read one book on the subject, this is it.
32. What does the phrase “In the wrong hands” in paragraph 2 probably mean?
A. If read by someone poorly educated. B. If reviewed by someone ill-intentioned.
C. If written by someone less competent. D. If translated by someone unacademic.
33. What is a feature of AI by Design according to the text?
A. It is packed with complex codes. B. It adopts a down-to-earth writing style.
C. It provides step-by-step instructions. D. It is intended for AI professionals.
34. What does Campbell urge people to do regarding AI development?
A. Observe existing regulations on it.
B. Reconsider expert opinions about it.
C. Make joint efforts to keep it under control.
D. Learn from prior experience to slow it down.
35. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To recommend a book on AI. B. To give a brief account of AI history.
C. To clarify the definition of AI. D. To honor an outstanding AI expert.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
浏览上面漫笔，从漫笔后的选项当选出能够或许或许填入空缺处的最好选项。选项中有两项为过剩选项。
Overtourism Is For Real: How Can You Help?
Travel promotes understanding, expands our minds, makes us better people, and boosts local economies and communities, but the rapid growth of travel has led to overtourism in certain regions and destinations. 36 Certainly not. The loss of what travel offers would be unacceptable in today’s world. Here are some tips on making wise decisions to minimize pressure on the places we visit and improve our experience.
Choose mindfully. Overvisited destinations are that way for a reason: they’re special. With so many online posts featuring the same places, it’s easy to feel like you’re missing out. Go somewhere only when the landscape, culture or food deeply draws you. 37
Get creative. The best way to ease pressure on over-touristed destinations is to go somewhere else. Though overtourism is described as a problem affecting the entire world, it’s actually concentrated to a small number of extremely popular spots. That means you have tons of less-visited options to choose from. 38 Why not try a regional alternative or check out a popular destination’s lesser-known sights?
39 Minimize impact and maximize experience by skipping major holidays or rush hour. You’ll compete with fewer tourists, save money, experience a different side of a popular place, and boost the economy when tourism is traditionally slower.
Visiting a place that others call home is a privilege (侥幸). Do your part to preserve what makes a destination special in the first place. 40 You may be amazed how much closer you’ll feel to the people there.
A. Visit during off-peak times.
B. So, should we stop traveling?
C. Travel for you and no one else.
D. Can overtourism be avoided then?
E. You can still find relatively undiscovered places.
F. You’ll find yourself virtually alone, or close to it.
G. Consider giving back to the communities you’re visiting.
第三局部 说话利用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
浏览上面漫笔，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项当选出最好选项。
When I decided to buy a house in Europe ten years ago, I didn’t think too long. I liked traveling in France, but when it came to picking my favorite spot to 41 , Italy was the clear winner.
During my first visit to Italy, I 42 to ask for directions or order in a restaurant. But every time I tried to 43 a sentence of Italian together, the locals smiled at me and 44 my language skills. That encouragement helped me to get through the language 45 . After I made Italy my permanent home, I discovered how 46 Italians are. Neighbors will bring me freshly made cheese and will come to my door to 47 me to close the window in my car when rain is coming. It’s these small 48 of kindness that make a new country feel like home.
As a foodie, the way to my heart is through my stomach, and nowhere fuels my 49 quite like Italy. Each town has its own traditional 50 , and every family keeps a recipe passed from one generation to another. Families 51 for big meals on Sundays, birthdays, and whatever other excuses they can 52 . These meals are always 53 by laughter and joy. Whatever 54 life in Italy might have, the problems are 55 once you sit down to a big meal with friends and family.
41. A. study B. rent C. visit D. settle
42. A. planned B. struggled C. refused D. happened
43. A. string B. hang C. mix D. match
44. A. improved B. assessed C. admired D. praised
45. A. course B. barrier C. area D. test
46. A. open-minded B. strong-willed C. warm-hearted D. well-informed
47. A. remind B. allow C. persuade D. order
48. A. tricks B. promises C. acts D. duties
49. A. ambition B. success C. appetite D. growth
50. A. costume B. dish C. symbol D. tale
51. A. gather B. cheer C. leave D. wait
52. A. put up with B. stand up for C. come up with D. make up for
53. A. signaled B. confirmed C. represented D. accompanied
54. A. disadvantages B. meanings C. surprises D. opportunities
55. A. created B. forgotten C. understood D. identified
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
浏览上面漫笔，在空缺处填入1个恰当的单词或括号内单词的准确情势。
Chinese cultural elements commemorating (记念) Tang Xianzu, 56 is known as “the Shakespeare of Asia”, add an international character to Stratford-upon-Avon, William Shakespeare’s hometown.
Tang and Shakespeare were contemporaries and both died in 1616. Although they could never have met, there are common 57 (theme) in their works, said Paul Edmondson, head of research for the Shakespeare Birthplace Trust. “Some of the things that Tang was writing about
58 (be) also Shakespeare’s concerns. I happen to know that Tang’s play The Peony Pavilion (《牡丹亭》) is similar in some ways 59 Romeo and Juliet.”
A statue commemorating Shakespeare and Tang was put up at Shakespeare’s Birthplace Garden in 2017. Two years later, a six-meter-tall pavilion, 60 (inspire) by The Peony Pavilion, 61 (build) at the Firs Garden, just ten minutes’ walk from Shakespeare’s birthplace.
Those cultural elements have increased Stratford’s international 62 (visible), said Edmondson, adding that visitors walking through the Birthplace Garden were often amazed
63 (find) the connection between the two great writers.
64 (recall) watching a Chinese opera version of Shakespeare’s play Richard III in Shanghai and meeting Chinese actors who came to Stratford a few years ago to perform parts of The Peony Pavilion, Edmondson said, “It was very exciting to hear the Chinese language
65 see how Tang’s play was being performed.”
第四局部 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你们班在公园上了一堂美术课。请你给英国伴侣Chris写一封邮件分享这次履历，内容包含：
（1）你实现的作品；
（2）你的感触。
注重：
（1）写作词数应为80个摆布；
（2）请按以下格局在答题卡的响应地位作答。
Dear Chris,
I’m writing to share with you an art class I had in a park last Friday.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分25分）
浏览上面资料，按照其内容和所给段落开首语续写两段，使之组成一篇完全的漫笔。
I met Gunter on a cold, wet and unforgettable evening in September. I had planned to fly to Vienna and take a bus to Prague for a conference. Due to a big storm, my flight had been delayed by an hour and a half. I touched down in Vienna just 30 minutes before the departure of the last bus to Prague. The moment I got off the plane, I ran like crazy through the airport building and jumped into the first taxi on the rank without a second thought.
That was when I met Gunter. I told him where I was going, but he said he hadn’t heard of the bus station. I thought my pronunciation was the problem, so I explained again more slowly, but he still looked confused. When I was about to give up, Gunter fished out his little phone and rang up a friend. After a heated discussion that lasted for what seemed like a century, Gunter put his phone down and started the car.
Finally, with just two minutes to spare we rolled into the bus station. Thankfully, there was a long queue (行列) still waiting to board the bus. Gunter parked the taxi behind the bus, turned around, and looked at me with a big smile on his face. “We made it,” he said.
Just then I realised that I had zero cash in my wallet. I flashed him an apologetic smile as I pulled out my Portuguese bankcard. He tried it several times, but the card machine just did not play along. A feeling of helplessness washed over me as I saw the bus queue thinning out.
At this moment, Gunter pointed towards the waiting hall of the bus station. There, at the entrance, was a cash machine. I jumped out of the car, made a mad run for the machine, and popped my card in, only to read the message: “Out of order. Sorry.”
注重：
（1）续写词数应为150个摆布。
（2）请按以下格局在答题卡的响应地位作答。
I ran back to Gunter and told him the bad news.
Four days later, when I was back in Vienna, I called Gunter as promised.
参考谜底及剖析
第一局部 听力
1–5 BAABC 6–10 ABACB 11–15 CBABA 16–20 CBACB
第二局部 浏览
第一节
A
本文是一篇利用文。本文先容了卡洛春季徒步节所供给的多种徒步勾当，旨在为各级别的徒步喜好者供给多样化的挑选，以知足他们差别的到场须要。
21. D 细节懂得题。按照Walk 1 – The Natural World局部中的“Walk Duration: 6 hours”、Walk 2 – Introduction to Hillwalking局部中的“Walk Duration: 5 hours”、Walk 3 – Moonlight Under the Stars局部中的“Walk Duration: 3 hours”和Walk 4 – Photographic Walk in Kilbrannish Forest局部中的“Walk Duration: 1.5 hours”可知，Photographic Walk in Kilbrannish Forest所花的时辰最短。故选D。
22. A 细节懂得题。按照Walk 3 – Moonlight Under the Stars局部中的“A torch (手电筒) along with suitable clothing is essential for walking in the dark.”可知，报名到场第三条徒步线路的到场者须要带手电筒和适合的衣服。故选A。
23 D 细节懂得题。按照Walk 1 – The Natural World局部中的“Date and Time: Saturday, 1st October, at 09:00”、Walk 2 – Introduction to Hillwalking局部中的“Date and Time: Sunday, 2nd October, at 09:00”、Walk 3 – Moonlight Under the Stars局部中的“Date and Time: Saturday, 1st October, at 18:30”和Walk 4 – Photographic Walk in Kilbrannish Forest局部中的“Date and Time: Sunday, 2nd October, at 11:45”可知，这四条徒步线路的配合点是它们都支配在周末。故选D。
B
本文是一篇申明文。文章报告了旧金山湾区设立了一个小亭，供搭客打印纸质资料，以知足那些在搭车途中巴望浏览纸质读物的搭客的须要，并切磋了这一名目对本地交通的影响。
24. C 推理判定题。按照第一段和最初一段的内容可推知，旧金山湾区疾速交通体系倡议了小亭名目，旨在知足那些喜好在搭车进程中浏览纸质资料的搭客的须要。这个名目让搭客在健忘照顾纸质浏览资料的环境下，仍能够或许或许取得纸质读物。故选C。
25. B 细节懂得题。按照第三段中的“You enter the fare gates (检票口) and you’ll see a kiosk that is lit up and it tells you can get a one-minute, a three-minute, or a five-minute story”可知，搭客们进入小亭后，能够或许或许自行挑选所需打印的故事长度。这意味着小亭里的故事是按照长度遏制分类的。故选B。
26. A 细节懂得题。按照第五段内容可知，Trost比来构造一场故事大赛。这次大赛热切地约请本地的作家们积极到场投稿，旨在为泛博读者供给一个怪异的平台，让他们更深上天
领会本地作家。故选A。
27. D 观点立场题。按照倒数第二段可知，统统交通机构都在尽最大尽力改良搭客的'搭车休会，Trost深信小亭名目将吸收更多的搭客。换句话说，在Trost看来，旧金山湾区疾速交通体系的搭客数目将会增添。故选D。
C
本文是一篇申明文。文章首要报告了巴比伦微农场供给室内莳植体系，经由过程云手艺长途监控，削减莳植动物所需的水量，理论可延续性，削减碳排放。
28. C 细节懂得题。按照文章第一段最初一句话“While farmer’s markets are a solid choice to reduce the journey, Babylon Micro-Farm (BMF) shortens it even more.”可知，BMF（巴比伦微农场）延长了食品从农场到餐桌的间隔。故选C。
29. B 细节懂得题。按照文章第三段中的“there is a convenient app that provides growing data in real time.”可知，这个便利的利用法式供给了及时的生长数据，是以能够或许或许揣度出它供给了动物以后的状态信息。故选B。
30. D 推理判定题。按照文章最初一段“BMF employees live out sustainability in their everyday lives. About half of them walk or bike to work. Inside the office, they encourage recycling and waste reduction by limiting garbage cans and avoiding single-use plastic.”可知，BMF的员工在平常糊口中践行可延续行动，如骑自行车下班、鼓动勉励收受接管和削减渣滓，由此预测，他们具备激烈的环境认识。故选D。
31. A 大旨粗心题。通读全文可知，整篇文章首要报告了BMF的上风，如削减食品运输间隔、节水、无农药利用、削减碳排放等，这些都是BMF的首要上风。故选A。
D
本文是一篇申明文。文章首要批评了Catriona Campbell所著的《野生智能设想：与野生智能共生的打算》，阐发了以后AI生长的趋向和行将到来的AI反动，夸大了人类须要对AI遏制节制，以防止被边缘化乃至呈现更糟的效果。
32. C 词义预测题。按照文章第二段画线词后文中的but可知，地址句子前后是转机干系。but条件到，这本书能够或许会像计较机代码一样庞杂难明；but后指出这本书的作者Campbell具有二十多年的专业经历，能将死板难明的内容变得浅显易懂。由此可推知，but前应当是假定一个除Campbell以外的作者写这本书，也便是指的是不太称职、不太专业的人写这本书的环境，与作者构成对照，凸起作者的专业。故选C。
33. B 推理判定题。按照文章第二段最初一句话“She writes from the practical angle of a business person rather than as an academic, making for a guide which is highly accessible and informative and which, by the close, will make you feel almost as smart as AI.”可知，本书的作者从贸易人士（而非学者）的适用角度动身，使得这本书极易懂得、内容丰硕，即这本书接纳一种接地气的写作气概。此中down-to-earth与文中的“practical”和“highly accessible”相照顾。故选B。
34. C 推理判定题。按照文章第三段最初一句“She says it is essential that we keep control of artificial intelligence, or risk being sidelined and perhaps even worse.”可知，她提示人们必须坚持对野生智能的节制，即作者号令人们结合起来配合节制野生智能的生长，以防止落空对其的节制和面对潜伏的要挟。故选C。
35. A 写作目标题。通读全文特别按照文章的最初一段可知，文章首要批评了Catriona Campbell所著的《野生智能设想：与野生智能共生的打算》这本书，并且作者激烈保举这本书，由于它能够或许或许浅显易懂地为通俗人供给野生智能的常识信息。是以，这篇文章的写作目标是保举一本对AI的书。故选A。
第二节
本文是一篇申明文。文章首要先容了若何应答过分游览这个题目。
36. B 绝后“Travel promotes understanding, expands our minds, makes us better people, and boosts local economies and communities, but the rapid growth of travel has led to overtourism in certain regions and destinations.”指出了游览的各类益处，接着话锋一转，提到了游览业的疾速增加致使的过分游览题目。空后“Certainly not. The loss of what travel offers would be unacceptable in today’s world. Here are some tips on making wise decisions to minimize pressure on the places we visit and improve our experience.”申了然游览的不可或缺性，并引出了下文的游览倡议。按照高低文语境可推知，空处应是一个有关游览的发问，空后内容是对该发问的回覆，是以B项“So, should we stop traveling?（那末，咱们应当遏制游览吗？）”合适语境。故选B。
37. C 按照本段首句“Choose mindfully.”和绝后的“Go somewhere only when the landscape, culture or food deeply draws you.”可知，该段倡议读者理智挑选出行目标地，去那些景观、文明或食品深深吸收本身的处所，夸大了以小我休会为焦点的游览思惟，是以C项“Travel for you and no one else.（为本身而观光，而不是为了别人。）”合适语境。故选C。
38. E 该段夸大了游览要有立异思惟，并指出过分游览只调集在多数极受接待的地址。绝后“That means you have tons of less-visited options to choose from.”指出，你有大批的挑选机遇，去那些不太热门的观光目标地。空后“Why not try a regional alternative or check out a popular destination’s lesser-known sights?”详细给出了挑选出行目标的打算，是以E项“You can still find relatively undiscovered places.（你依然能够或许或许找到绝对未被发明的处所。）”合适语境。E项中的“undiscovered”照顾上句中的“less-visited”和下句中的“lesser-known”。故选E。
39. A 按照文章布局可知，空处是该段的大旨句。按照空后的“Minimize impact and maximize experience by skipping major holidays or rush hour.”及下文内容可知，该段夸大错峰出行，并指出了错峰出行的益处。A项“Visit during off-peak times.（在旺季时拜候。）”能归纳综合本段粗心，合适语境。故选A。
40. G 绝后“Do your part to preserve what makes a destination special in the first place.”指出，要尽本身的气力掩护你所观赏处所的特点。G项中的“giving back”照顾上句中的“preserve”，同时，G项中的“communities”也是空后句中“there”的所指。是以G项“Consider giving back to the communities you’re visiting.（斟酌回馈你正在观赏的社区。）”合适语境。故选G。
第三局部 说话利用
第一节
本文是一篇记述文。文章首要报告了作者挑选假寓意大利的缘由。
41. D 考核动词辨析。按照第二段中的“After I made Italy my permanent home”可知，我假寓在了意大利，由此可推知，这里是指当触及挑选“假寓”场合的时辰。study“进修”；rent“租”；visit“观赏；访问”；settle“假寓”。故选D。
42. B 考核动词辨析。按照绝后的“During my first visit to Italy”可知，作者在描写本身第一次去意大利的景象。按照常识可推知，第一次去一个目生的国度，问路用饭应是很费劲的。下文用but遏制转机，抒发了意大利人对作者的友爱，由此也能够或许或许推知，该处应是在抒发作者的费劲。plan“打算”；struggle“挣扎”；refuse“谢绝”；happen“产生；可巧”。struggle to do sth意为“费劲地做某事”。故选B。
43. A 考核动词辨析。按照高低文语境和“tried”可推知，作者意大利语并不谙练，由此可推知，这里是指作者尽力“拼集”出一句话。string“把（单词或短语）连成句子”；hang“吊挂”；mix“夹杂”；match“配对；婚配”。故选A。
44. D 考核动词辨析。按照绝后的“smiled”和空后的“That encouragement helped me”可推知，固然作者的意大利语说得糟糕，可是意大利人仍是会“嘉奖”作者的说话技术。improve“进步”；assess“阐发”；admire“敬佩”；praise“嘉奖；褒扬”。故选D。
45. B 考核名词辨析。按照语境可推知，这里是说意大利人的鼓动勉励赞助作者跨过了说话“妨碍”。course“课程”；barrier“妨碍”；area“地区”；test“测试”。故选B。
46. C 考核描写词辨析。按照下文中的“Neighbors will bring me freshly made cheese and will come to my door to me to close the window in my car when rain is coming. It’s these small of kindness that make a new country feel like home.”可知，意大利人是“暖和热情的”人。open-minded“思惟开放的；无成见的”；strong-willed“意志顽强的”；warm-hearted“热情的”；well-informed“孤陋寡闻的；常识赅博的”。故选C。
47. A 考核动词辨析。按照下文中的“to close the window in my car when rain is coming”可知，这里是指意大利人还在下雨的时辰“提示”作者关窗户。remind“提示”；allow“许可”；persuade“压服”；order“号令”。故选A。
48. C 考核名词辨析。按照语境可知，这里是指意大利人这些小小的善举，使作者有了家的感受。trick“把戏；狡计”；promise“许诺”；act“行动”；duty“义务；职责”。act of kindness意为“善举”。故选C。
49. C 考核名词辨析。按照上文中的“As a foodie, the way to my heart is through my stomach”可知，作者是一个美食喜好者，是以这里是指不甚么处所能像意大利一样激发作者的“食欲”。ambition“抱负；抱负”；success“胜利”；appetite“食欲；胃口”；growth“生长”。故选C。
50. B 考核名词辨析。按照上文提到的作者对美食的酷爱和下文的“every family keeps a recipe passed from one generation to another”可推知，这里是指每一个小镇都有本身的传统“菜肴”。costume“服装网www.vhao.net”；dish“菜肴”；symbol“标记；意味”；tale“故事”。故选B。
51. A 考核动词辨析。按照下文的“for big meals on Sundays, birthdays, and whatever other excuses”及“you sit down to a big meal with friends and family”可推知，意大利人酷爱会餐，他们会捉住各类机遇，想出各类捏词去“集会”。gather“堆积；调集”；cheer“喝彩；加油”；leave“分开”；wait“期待”。故选A。
52. C 考核动词短语辨析。按照语境可知，这里是指意大利人酷爱会餐，是以会“提出”统统能想到的来由来集会。put up with“忍耐”；stand up for“撑持；保护”；come up with“想到，提出（打算、设法等）”；make up for“填补；弥补”。故选C。
53. D 考核动词辨析。这里是指意大利人会餐老是“陪同”着欢声笑语。signal“表现；标明”；confirm“确认；证明”；represent“代表”；accompany“陪同”。故选D。
54. A 考核名词辨析。按照下文中的“problems”可推知，这里是表现：不管意大利的糊口有甚么“错误谬误”，一旦你与伴侣和家人坐下来吃顿大餐，这些题目就会被“健忘”。disadvantage“错误谬误；倒霉身分；方便的地方”；meaning“意思”；surprise“欣喜”；opportunity“机遇”。故选A。
55. B 考核动词辨析。剖析见上题。create“缔造；创作”；forget“健忘”；understand“懂得”；identify“辨认；发明”。故选B。
第二节
本文是一篇消息报道。文章首要先容了中国明朝戏剧家汤显祖与英国剧作家莎士比亚之间的文明接洽及其对文明交换的进献。
56. who 考核定语从句。阐发句子布局可知，空处指导非限定性定语从句，润色先行词Tang Xianzu，指人，并在从句中作主语。故填who。
57. themes 考核名词的双数。按照绝后的“there are”可知，空处应填theme的双数情势。故填themes。
58. were 考核动词的时态。阐发句子布局可知，空处作句子谓语，主语为“Some of the things”，是双数观点，且按照高低文语境可知，空处利用普通曩昔时。故填were。
59. to 考核介词。此处考核牢固短语be similar to，表现“与……类似”。故填to。
60. inspired 考核非谓语动词。阐发句子布局可知，空处作非谓语，润色名词pavilion，表现“受《牡丹亭》开导”，利用曩昔分词情势表现主动。曩昔分词短语“inspired by The Peony Pavilion”作“a six-meter-tall pavilion”的后置定语。故填inspired。
61. was built 考核主谓分歧和语态。阐发句子布局可知，主语为pavilion，是双数情势，空处作句子的谓语，pavilion与build之间为主动干系。这里描写曩昔产生的工作，利用普通曩昔时的主动语态。故填was built。
62. visibility 考核词性转换。阐发句子布局可知，空处作increased的宾语，且被描写词international润色，应填visible的名词情势visibility，表现“着名度”。故填visibility。
63. to find 考核非谓语动词。此处考核be+adj.+to do布局。故填to find。
64. Recalling 考核非谓语动词。阐发句子布局可知，空处作状语，Edmondson和recall之间为主动干系，利用其此刻分词情势作状语。故填Recalling。空处位于句首，注重首字母须大写。
65. and 考核连词。阐发句子布局可知，空处毗连两个并列成份“hear the Chinese language”和“see how Tang’s play was being performed”。故填and。
第四局部 写作
第一节
参考范文：
Dear Chris,
I’m writing to share with you an art class I had in a park last Friday. I chose to paint a landscape featuring a calm lake surrounded by vibrant flowers and solemn trees. The sunlight and the gentle breeze made the whole scene come to life. It was incredibly inspiring to be surrounded by nature. I felt a sense of peace and relaxation while painting outdoors, which was a completely different experience from our traditional classroom setting. Overall, the exciting experience gave me a lot of fun. I really enjoyed it and hope we can have more classes like this in the future.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
参考范文：
I ran back to Gunter and told him the bad news. He looked at me in disbelief, asking me what to do. Giving him another apologetic smile, I asked him for a delay in payment and promised to call him and pay him back the money I owed him. To my surprise, Gunter wrote down his phone number without hesitation and gave it to me. “Just keep your promise, Sir.” A feeling of gratitude washed over me. I gave him a firm handshake, jumped out of the car and made a mad dash for the bus and jumped onto it just before it left.
Four days later, when I was back in Vienna, I called Gunter as promised. We met at the bus station where he had dropped me off four days before. As soon as I saw him, I gave him a big hug. I told him that thanks to his kindness and timely help, everything had gone smoothly. I paid him for the ride, along with a generous tip, which he declined. I felt blessed to have met such a warm-hearted man. After that, we became good friends and kept in touch with each other regularly.
听力资料
Text 1
M: Did you watch the talent show on TV last night?
W: No. I missed it. I went with my mom to buy some clothes.
Text 2
W: I love this park. It’s so beautiful.
M: It surely is. Are you tired? Shall we stop by the lake for a few minutes?
W: Good idea. Let’s go to that café for a little refreshment.
Text 3
W: Tom, shall we invite the Smiths around for dinner this Sunday?
M: Sure, but I need to pack for Monday’s business trip. What about Saturday?
W: Okay.
Text 4
M: Barbara, do you want to play table tennis with us tonight?
W: I’d love to, but I can’t. I’m catching the last train to Denver to see my grandma. I need to take her to visit a doctor tomorrow morning.
Text 5
W: Alex, did you feed the cat this morning? I don’t think she can wait.
M: All right, after I finish this chapter. I just can’t let go of this book.
Text 6
M: Miss, do you need any help?
W: I want to get fit, but exercise doesn’t seem to help.
M: What kind of exercise have you done before?
W: I did jogging now and then, but it was so boring. So I changed to weightlifting, but it was so demanding. And I was afraid of getting injured. So, I went bike riding.
M: Oh, I see. You need to be consistent. I suggest you do different kinds of exercise on one day, or on different days of the week. This will help hold your interest, so you can keep coming back.
Text 7
W: Hello, Brown’s Grill. How may I help you?
M: Hi, I’d like to book a table for Friday evening.
W: Okay. How many people are there in your party?
M: There will be six.
W: And what time would you like to come?
M: Let’s say at, 6:30?
W: I’m afraid we don’t have anything available then. We could see you at 5:30 or 8 o’clock.
M: Oh, 8 o’clock is better.
W: Fine. May I have your name?
M: Yes. It’s Anderson.
W: Thank you. We’ll see you on Friday. By the way, we’ve moved to Howard Street.
M: Oh, yeah, I know. Thanks.
Text 8
W: Jacob, do you have a minute now?
M: Sure.
W: Well, it’s not easy to say, but I have to tell you — you’re not in our group, for the class project.
M: Sarah, what do you mean? You know I’m always in a group with you.
W: I know. It’s just that this time, this time we made the group differently. And, because you were late, we’ve already made the group. See? There are four of us already.
M: So? We can’t be a group of five?
W: Well, Professor North said there should be no more than four people in each group. It’s not about you or your work or anything like that.
M: Okay, but please count me in next time.
Text 9
M: Hey, Jannie, where are you going?
W: To the library.
M: There is a music concert in Victoria Park at 4 o’clock. Do you want to go?
W: Yes. Professor Darwin’s lecture is cancelled. I’m free this evening.
M: Great. The band plays pretty good music. For the last 3 years, I have never missed it.
W: How long ago did the band start playing in the park?
M: I think it was 5 years ago. Every year they arrive the first week of July and play for a week. You’re sure to enjoy this evening. There will be good country music.
W: My favorite is rock and roll. But I have to say that country music can be quite beautiful sometimes.
M: I like all kinds of music, especially Jazz. Oh, Jannie, we have to go now.
W: Why? There’s plenty of time.
M: Many people are heading to the park. The traffic will be terrible.
W: All right, but I have to return these books first.
M: Okay. I’ll be waiting for you at the bus station.
Text 10
W: Good morning, everyone. This lesson is a part of our leadership series. Let me start by sharing a story of Richard Rochester, one of the most successful businessmen in Britain.
Years ago, I was given the task of organizing a conference in the south of England. I chose a five star hotel owned by Rochester as the venue. Susan, the receptionist, helped me arrange everything perfectly. Once when we were chatting, I asked Susan if she’d ever met Mr. Rochester. She said yes.
Shortly after Mr. Rochester bought the hotel, he made an appointment to see the hotel manager. When he arrived, the first person he met was Susan, who was cleaning the carpet. He chatted with Susan for 30 minutes before keeping his appointment with the manager. He spent all day at the hotel, talking with each member of the staff, from the top guy to the lady who cleaned the toilets. Six months later, Mr. Rochester paid another visit. Susan had been promoted to receptionist, but he recognized her immediately and addressed her by name. He even remembered that she had a little girl and what her name was.
Now, I don’t believe that Richard Rochester has that good a memory. He must have written a lot of notes after his first visit and read them over again before that second visit. It’s time consuming, but it shows the importance he places on human relationships. I think that’s one of the secrets of his success.
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